AO writes: It says that reversal of the transaction should be such that it restores the state to how it would have been if the transaction had not taken place. Well, from the direction I'm looking, you will not be getting back to the state that you were in had the transaction not occured... it's a physical impossibility!
I haven't read the statute, but my understanding of the above, would be to put BOTH parties in a position were they haven't incurred loss. Hence purchase costs, improvements etc should also be set against the eventual settlement figure. If this is the case, the eventual settlement figure could be reduced substantially.
Secondly, I'm not certain how it affects this case, but if the vendor has signed a declaration stating that he is unaware of any insolvency issues, and subsequent circumstances show otherwise, then he has effectively attempted to commit a deception. And he may also be benefitting from this crime by this reclamation taking place, because as a discharged debtor/bankrupt he would be elligible for better loan facilities.
Just a thought ( or 2)